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Modal test paper
1. When making an occupied bed, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) put the dirty sheets on the floor
(B) help the client to sit in a chair while the bed is being made
(C) lower both side rails before changing the sheets
(D) raise side rail on unattended side
(A) put the dirty sheets on the floor
(B) help the client to sit in a chair while the bed is being made
(C) lower both side rails before changing the sheets
(D) raise side rail on unattended side
2. The nurse aide is in the employee dining room. A group of nurse aides are eating lunch together and begin discussing how rude a certain client was acting. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) join in the conversation
(B) suggest that this is not the place to discuss the client
(C) be quiet and not say anything to the other nurse aides
(D) return to the unit and tell the client what was said
(A) join in the conversation
(B) suggest that this is not the place to discuss the client
(C) be quiet and not say anything to the other nurse aides
(D) return to the unit and tell the client what was said
3. The nurse aide enters a client’s room, and the client states that he has pain. What should the nurse aide do?
(A) Report it to the nurse in charge
(B) Tell the client to get out of bed for awhile
(C) Tell the client that the pain will go away soon
(D) Ignore the client’s statement
(A) Report it to the nurse in charge
(B) Tell the client to get out of bed for awhile
(C) Tell the client that the pain will go away soon
(D) Ignore the client’s statement
4. A client is upset and crying over the recent death of her husband. How should the nurse aide respond?
(A) Tell her not to cry because it will make her feel sad
(B) Close the door and leave the client to cry alone
(C) Take the client to an activity to help her forget her husband
(D) Sit with the client and allow her to talk about her feelings
(A) Tell her not to cry because it will make her feel sad
(B) Close the door and leave the client to cry alone
(C) Take the client to an activity to help her forget her husband
(D) Sit with the client and allow her to talk about her feelings
5. Which temperature is considered MOST accurate?
(A) Oral
(B) Axillary
(C) Groin
(D) Rectal
(A) Oral
(B) Axillary
(C) Groin
(D) Rectal
6. What is a beginning sign of a pressure sore?
(A) Swelling
(B) Numbness
(C) Discoloration
(D) Coolness.
(A) Swelling
(B) Numbness
(C) Discoloration
(D) Coolness.
7 While assisting a client with denture care the nurse aide observes that the upper plate is cracked. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) clean the dentures and return them to the client’s mouth
(B) call the client’s family
(C) call the dentist and make an appointment
(D) report the damage to the nurse in charge
(B) call the client’s family
(C) call the dentist and make an appointment
(D) report the damage to the nurse in charge
8. A new client refuses to wear a clothing protector at lunch. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) tell the client that he must wear it
(B) put the clothing protector on the client
(C) report this to the nurse in charge
(D) respect the client’s wishes
(A) tell the client that he must wear it
(B) put the clothing protector on the client
(C) report this to the nurse in charge
(D) respect the client’s wishes
9. The nurse aide can BEST show that he is listening to the client by:
(A) changing the subject frequently
(B) responding when appropriate
(C) correcting the client’s mistakes
(D) directing the conversation
(A) changing the subject frequently
(B) responding when appropriate
(C) correcting the client’s mistakes
(D) directing the conversation
10. The BEST time to prepare for a disaster is:
(A) while evacuating residents
(B) during lunch
(C) when everyone is safely in bed
(D) before it happens
(A) while evacuating residents
(B) during lunch
(C) when everyone is safely in bed
(D) before it happens
11. Mode of transmission of Pertussis:
(a) Vector transmission
(b) Through contaminated water
(c) Droplet infection
(d) Faecoaral
(a) Vector transmission
(b) Through contaminated water
(c) Droplet infection
(d) Faecoaral
12. Time required to measure the Mantaux test:
(a) 24 to 48 hrs
(b) 48 to72 hrs
(c) 10 to12 hrs
(d) 2 to 4 hrs
(a) 24 to 48 hrs
(b) 48 to72 hrs
(c) 10 to12 hrs
(d) 2 to 4 hrs
13. Name of the oral Polio Vaccine:
(a) BCG
(b) TAB
(c) Salk
(d) Sabin
(a) BCG
(b) TAB
(c) Salk
(d) Sabin
14. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug except:
(a) Chloromycin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) INH
(d) PAS
(a) Chloromycin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) INH
(d) PAS
15. Combination of Tripple Antigen:
(a) DPT
(b) BCG
(c) TAB
(d) ECG
16. The time interval between infection of suspected person and the
appearance of signs and symptom of the disease is called
(a) Quarrentine
(b) Recovery period
(c) Incubation
(d) Isolation period
(a) DPT
(b) BCG
(c) TAB
(d) ECG
16. The time interval between infection of suspected person and the
appearance of signs and symptom of the disease is called
(a) Quarrentine
(b) Recovery period
(c) Incubation
(d) Isolation period
17. Route of transmission of Hepatitis B:
(a) Oral
(b) Potential
(c) Faeco oral
(d) Contaminated water
(a) Oral
(b) Potential
(c) Faeco oral
(d) Contaminated water
18. Mode of transmission of typhoid fever:
(a) Intravenous
(b) Oro faceal
(c) Respiratory
(d) Droplet
(a) Intravenous
(b) Oro faceal
(c) Respiratory
(d) Droplet
19. Causative organism of diphtheria:
(a) Mycobacteria
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria
(d) Staphylococcus
(a) Mycobacteria
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria
(d) Staphylococcus
20. Incubation period of measles:
(a) 1-7 days
(b) 7-14 days
(c) 14-21 days
(d) 21-28 days
(a) 1-7 days
(b) 7-14 days
(c) 14-21 days
(d) 21-28 days
21. Site for mantaux test:
(a) Outer and upper quadrant of gluteus maximus
(b) Deltoid region
(c) Posterior left forearm
(d) Anterior left forearm
(a) Outer and upper quadrant of gluteus maximus
(b) Deltoid region
(c) Posterior left forearm
(d) Anterior left forearm
22. Media of transmission of bovine type of tubercle bacilli:
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Air
(d) Food
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Air
(d) Food
23. Painful Micturition:
(a) Eneuresis
(b) Dysuria
(c) Rentention of urine
(d) Diarrhoea
(a) Eneuresis
(b) Dysuria
(c) Rentention of urine
(d) Diarrhoea
24. Amount of solution used for evacuant enema in adults:
(a) 100-250 ml
(b) 250-350ml
(c) 500-1000ml
(d) 1000-1500 ml
(a) 100-250 ml
(b) 250-350ml
(c) 500-1000ml
(d) 1000-1500 ml
25. Drugs used to relieve pain:
(a) Anti inflammatory
(b) Antipyretics
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Analgesics
(a) Anti inflammatory
(b) Antipyretics
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Analgesics
26. Hormone secreted by the testes:
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Pitocin
(c) Androgens
(d) Progesterone
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Pitocin
(c) Androgens
(d) Progesterone
27. One teaspoon contains …………. ml
(a) 2ml
(b) 5ml
(c) 10ml
(d) 15ml
(a) 2ml
(b) 5ml
(c) 10ml
(d) 15ml
28. One ml contains ……….. drops
(a) 5 drops
(b) 10 drops
(c) 15 drops
(d) 20 drops
(a) 5 drops
(b) 10 drops
(c) 15 drops
(d) 20 drops
29. Average weight of a new born baby:
(a) 2 kg
(b) 4 Kg
(c) 3kg
(d) 5kg
(a) 2 kg
(b) 4 Kg
(c) 3kg
(d) 5kg
30. How much salt must be added to one litre of water to make a solution of normal saline?
(a) 2 grams
(b) 5 grams
(c) 6 grams
(d) 9 grams
(a) 2 grams
(b) 5 grams
(c) 6 grams
(d) 9 grams
31. Number of vertebra in the sacrum:
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
32. Number of chromosome in a cell: 16
(a) 23
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 40
(a) 23
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 40
33. A trial septal defect occurs due to the persistence of:
(a) Formen ovale
(b) Ductus arteriosis
(c) Ductus venosus
(d) Mitral valve
(a) Formen ovale
(b) Ductus arteriosis
(c) Ductus venosus
(d) Mitral valve
34. ………. is a water soluble vitamin:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin D
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin D
35. Quickening means:
(a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound
(b) Sudden cessation of Menstruation
(c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother
(d) Nausa and vomiting in the morning
(a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound
(b) Sudden cessation of Menstruation
(c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother
(d) Nausa and vomiting in the morning
36. Cholera is caused by a kind of bacterium called:
(a) Tubercle bacillus
(b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) Tubercle bacillus
(b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
37. Drinking of alcohol will severely effects the
(a) Kidney
(b) Brain
(c) Stomach
(d) Liver
(a) Kidney
(b) Brain
(c) Stomach
(d) Liver
38. The disease in which the patients blood does not clot easily is:
(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Rabies
(d) Diabetes
(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Rabies
(d) Diabetes
39. Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Penicillin
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Penicillin
40. ……….. is caused by the fungus
(a) Malaria
(b) Athletes foot
(c) Filariasis
(d) Typhus fever
(a) Malaria
(b) Athletes foot
(c) Filariasis
(d) Typhus fever
41. The Filariasis is transmitted by ……..
(a) Anopheles female mosquito
(b) Anopheles male mosquito
(c) Culex female mosquito
(d) Culex male mosquito
(a) Anopheles female mosquito
(b) Anopheles male mosquito
(c) Culex female mosquito
(d) Culex male mosquito
42. The blood group contain no antibodies:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
43. The disease that spread through sexual contact is ……….
(a) Leprosy
(b) AIDS
(c) Itches
(d) Scabies
(a) Leprosy
(b) AIDS
(c) Itches
(d) Scabies
44. Typhoid is transmitted through –
(a) Water and food
(b) Air
(c) Touch
(d) Personal contact
(a) Water and food
(b) Air
(c) Touch
(d) Personal contact
45. ………… is example for the disease caused by bacteria:
(a) Cold
(b) Typhoid
(c) Typhus fever
(d) Chicken pox
(a) Cold
(b) Typhoid
(c) Typhus fever
(d) Chicken pox
46. ……… is the immunity get by the body after the first attack of disease.
(a) Natural immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Artificial immunity
(d) Acquired immunity
(a) Natural immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Artificial immunity
(d) Acquired immunity
47. The cells that are responsible for the production of antibodies are …….
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Platelets
(c) Plasma
(d) White blood cells
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Platelets
(c) Plasma
(d) White blood cells
48. A healthy person can donate blood …… or ….. times a year.
(a) Six or seven
(b) Five or six
(c) Three or four
(d) Two or three
(a) Six or seven
(b) Five or six
(c) Three or four
(d) Two or three
49. Radio active cobalt and radium are used for the treatment of –diseases.
(a) Cholera
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Cancer
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
(a) Cholera
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Cancer
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
50. World health day is on …….
(a) May 12th
(b) April 7th
(c) April 30th
(d) December 18th
(a) May 12th
(b) April 7th
(c) April 30th
(d) December 18th
ANSWERS
- (D) raise side rail on unattended side
- (B) suggest that this is not the place to discuss the client
- (A) Report it to the nurse in charge
- (D) Sit with the client and allow her to talk about her feelings
- (D) Rectal
- (C) Discoloration
- (D) report the damage to the nurse in charge
- (D) respect the client’s wishes
- (B) responding when appropriate
- (D) before it happens
- (c) Droplet infection
- (b) 48 to72 hrs
- (d) Sabin
- (a) Chloromycin
- (a) DPT
- (c) Incubation
- (b) Potential
- (b) Oro faceal
- (c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria
- (b) 7-14 days
- (d) Anterior left forearm
- (a) Milk
- (b) Dysuria
- (c) 500-1000ml
- (d) Analgesics
- (c) Androgens
- (b) 5ml
- (c) 15 drops
- (c) 3kg
- (d) 9 grams
- (a) 5
- (c) 46
- (a) Formen ovale
- (c) Vitamin B
- (c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother
- (b) Vibrio cholerae
- (d) Liver
- (b) Haemophilia
- (c) Tetracycline
- (b) Athletes foot
- (c) Culex female mosquito
- (d) AB
- (b) AIDS
- (a) Water and food
- (b) Typhoid
- (d) Acquired immunity
- (d) White blood cells
- (c) Three or four
- (c) Cancer
- (b) April 7th
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